Im a bit confused with what you are saying thats ok (im a bit slow).I get that competition is at odds with pure profit making. Then yes I guess the definition is incorrect.
Multiple posters have been trying to tell me that it's not the definition, but 'competition in a free market' has been widely used to define it by many economists. It's not my definition. Whether or not that is at odds with the original definition who GAF?
The model itself has, however one wants to define it, has worked well up until the last 5 minutes (figuratively speaking time wise).
Again, that's not the point I'm making, the point I'm making is that it seems the narrative is that a non sentient economic model is the cause of our current monopoly situation. It isn't.
Sure, it enables monopoly, but it is not the cause, the cause is greed which barely anyone wants to state.
That's all I've been trying to say all along, but nah, posters have been doubling down on the definition debate, which isn't the pertinent factor, so I reply what has widely been used to define it and it's 'nah you're wrong'. My fault for getting sucked into a definition debate which isn't my point to begin with.
If understand correctly, I highlight that monopolies and its poorer cousins (duopolies and oligopolies) have been around since the dawn of time... they are either natural (think water supply) or created think say OPEC.
Dominant market share/price manipulation is a characteristic of capitalism.
Non-natural monopolies resulting in price gouging is a direct outcome of a capitalistic economy.
Or, did I miss your point?