How does it work? I'm no expert on the subject, but I assume it would be banned under the rules around illicit drug use, rather than as a performance enhancing drug? So assuming it isn't performance enhancing, then if it's being used under the prescription and supervision of a doctor is it still even considered an illicit drug? Surely there would have to be some kind of consideration / exemption for a medical-use scenario like this?I don’t think it’s necessarily a simple answer. I can imagine 6 months of therapy would be adjudicated differently to a 6-day course, for example.