The argument should be based of per hour for the same job. Anything else is nonsense. Most of my friends partners don’t work and they alter stats for a gender pay gap..
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Some work 1-2 days a week. I thought the stats were taken every woman vs every man?If they don't work they don't alter stats
you didn't write that they work part timeSome work 1-2 days a week. I thought the stats were taken every woman vs every man?
The argument should be based of per hour for the same job. Anything else is nonsense. Most of my friends partners don’t work and they alter stats for a gender pay gap..
So if 10 women work 1 day and week compared to 10 men full time that would represent a pay gap yes?you didn't write that they work part time
you wrote that they don't work
It would present a difference that a statistician would delve into their bag of tricks to account for to get an accurate figure. As they already do in order to get the figures they publish.So if 10 women work 1 day and week compared to 10 men full time that would represent a pay gap yes?
GPG = (Average male total remuneration - Average female total remuneration) / Average male total remuneration x 100. The calculation includes all employees and employee types (part time and casuals included)It would present a difference that a statistician would delve into their bag of tricks to account for to get an accurate figure. As they already do in order to get the figures they publish.
Where did you see that?
Yes but the very next line says this:Calculating gender pay gaps (GPG) | WGEA
www.wgea.gov.au
All salary/remuneration data for each employee is provided as their annualised and full-time equivalent earnings. This means:
- Any part year employee has earnings provided as if they worked the full year
- Any part time employee has earnings provided as if they worked full time hours
As per my previous post, this is not the case. The 10 women that work 1 day a week effectively have their pay multiplied by five before doing the calculation.So if 10 women work 1 day and week compared to 10 men full time that would represent a pay gap yes?
Yep.this is to cover for them saying that women who don't work affect the stats which is clearly false
i get what you meanYep.
More women not working at all does not affect the stats from a calculation point of view - but it would be interesting to consider that it very well may have an impact on the actual numbers.
What I mean here is that households (with a man/woman couple, of which there are many) where only one of the pair do paid work may very well be more likely to have that partner on a high salary. One, out of necessity, they will seek higher paying roles (compared to a couple where both work), and they may also be able to come to an arrangement where it is easier for that person to put in the time required to gain such high paying roles, as their non working (for pay) partner can cover more of the unpaid work that the household requires. And guess what, more men take on the single income role than women.
urgh. Not sure if I explained that correctly. Basically it would be good to consider the pay of all people who are in a co-domiciled relationship, and see if the average (per person) for single earners is higher than for dual earners.
The only way to accurately measure this is same job and same experienceAs per my previous post, this is not the case. The 10 women that work 1 day a week effectively have their pay multiplied by five before doing the calculation.
No, of itself this is an accurate measure.The only way to accurately measure this is same job and same experience