I think the fact that you are asking all of these questions and speculating about whether the doctor did the right thing or not just shows that the current rules in place are a complete mess and that they are resulting in potential dangerous situations. From what I can see (and please anyone correct me if I'm wrong), at the time that this happened there was no clear security for the doctor in making their decision. Yes, there was an indication that an abortion would be allowed under a vague situational standard, but the problem being that the situations where it was allowed weren't clear and would only be assessed in court after the event, meaning the doctor would not be completely confident that they couldn't be charged with anything until being judged on the action. I wouldn't even be confident that seeking legal advice beforehand would have given clear guidance and assurances.I will admit to being naive in not being able to believe that at least 2 doctors, who should known better, failed to seek legal advice on the law when unnecessarily (and possibly negligently) sending a pregnant 10 year old girl interstate for a medical procedure that she could receive in her home state.
And this case sadly proves my point about the dangerous misinformation about the laws regarding abortion. The girl could have received the abortion in Ohio. That is clear enough from the law in question, and has been confirmed by the Attorney General. Assuming the child abuse doctor's motives were pure (which I certainly do), what other explanation is there as to why this occurred other than the child abuse doctor being grossly misinformed?
Will be interesting to see how this plays out for the doctors involved.
Now that it is a real patient, has the Indiana doctor violated an privacy or privilege requirements? Did they seek any legal advice themselves before discussing the patient with the child abuse doctor? What was the content of that conversation?
Did the child abuse doctor report the abuse when required (failure to do is a crime)? The suspect was only arrested yesterday, but it is possible an investigation was needed, had to find him etc, so they may have. But in the circumstance that they have failed to report, I could not believe that they would fail to report to protect the rapist. But is his (currently being reported) status as an illegal immigrant relevant in so far as the patient may be a family member, and therefore if the family involved are illegal immigrants reporting it could see them deported? But if it was reported, how did the Ohio AG not know about it? Once the story broke, and certainly once he decided to do a press conference on it, his office would have been scouring the state looking for the report.
Of course, none of this is as sad as slime raping 10 year olds.